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Ten hard questions about speaking in tongues (glossolalia and xenoglossy)
Having been a Pentecostal and Charismatic Christian for most of my life, I know firsthand the difficulty in addressing this issue without inflaming controversy and anger, yet I will try to do my best. When I began, unwillingly and unknowingly, to make my transformation from an emotional Pentecostal preacher to a calmer seeker of truth, many around me were either angered or hurt. This was seen as a betrayal on my part, though I certainly did not intend to do so. Some wanted to know why; what caused me to leave the Pentecostal fold that offered me an identity, a place of belonging, and a respectable leadership position? Why did I commit social suicide? Why did I become a pariah with a name that perhaps still leaves a bitter distaste in the mouths of many who once held em in good esteem? The simplest answer is that my greatest desire became to know truth, whatever it was, rather than to simply inherit it unquestioned. I began to study the Bible with renewed vigor and my biblical study showed me something different than that which I learned through many years in the Pentecostal faith. You can read my thoughts on the Bible and Tongues here. I posted that nearly two years ago, and have not written on this issue again. Now, I’d like to cautiously discuss it, with the hope of instigating thinking, rather than proving everyone wrong or fighting.
First of, here are some definitions: the act of “speaking in tongues” is differentiated into two separate entities by scholars. The first is called glossolalia, which refers to speech in “an unknown tongue,” while the second is known as xenoglossy (or xenoglossia), speaking in real human languages that are previously unknown to the speaker. So if I find myself in a church, and see others around me “speaking in tongues” by repeating sounds like “ra-ba-sha-ba” this is glossolalia, whereas if there is a native English speaker who has never been to France, and he is praying “louange à Dieu” this is xenoglossy.
It is obvious that this phenomenon called glossolalia does exist (this I know firsthand, having experienced it, and being able to manifest it at will). It is also obvious that it’s neither evil nor psychotic, as there are many Christians who are mentally stable and morally upright, yet speak or pray in tongues. It is also noteworthy that glossolalia is a very profound and powerful experience, one that many practitioners report as beneficial and meaningful. These issues are not up for debate, however, there are multiple biblical, theological, historic, linguistic, experimental, and rational reasons why I (along with most academics) am not convinced it’s a supernatural language that is miraculously given by God. Thorough research and investigation of this phenomenon leads to a theory that glossolalia is a natural phenomenon of “free vocalization.” It is true that those who practice glossolalia experience a meaningful and emotional experience, however, this is not evidence of a supernatural language, because other forms of non-language vocalizations, such as crying or laughing, also produce powerful emotional and meaningful experiences, yet are still very natural..
Pentecostals and Charismatics, however, fervently argue that it is a supernatural impartation of a language from God, often as evidence that the speaker has been “baptized with the Spirit.” While I am open to this view, if evidenced by Scripture and reason, there are many hard questions that such a belief cannot effectively answer. This paper will attempt to parse some of these reasons. Though I certainly don’t expect or intend to “disprove speaking in tongues,” (for how can arguments of Scripture, science, or reason ever compare against the power of a meaningful experience?) but these questions certainly deserve to be dealt with in a cohesive way, which may require a reevaluation of current Pentecostal doctrine. Simple responses like “just because there are fake versions does not prove there is no real one” or “it’s a spiritual thing, you can’t study it with logic” are not consistent with an intellectually rigorous theology, something many Pentecostals claim to have. And so here are the challenging questions that I have not found compelling answers for (that may serve as clues to my humble skepticism towards this issue.)
The Ten Questions
1. Why do different charismatic groups have different vowels and accents of glossolalia?
Glossolalia does not sound like any of the well known languages many of us are familiar with. It doesn't sound like French, Greek, German, or Japanese. In attempting to explain this some Pentecostals argue that glossolalia is likely a combination of real languages we are not personally aware of. However the worlds leading linguists have examined these claims and concluded that glossolalia is:- “a meaningless but phonologically structured human utterance believed by the speaker to be a real language but bearing no systematic resemblance to any natural language, living or dead.” (1)
- "the [speakers] utterance mirrors that of the person who guided the glossolalist into the behavior. There is little variation of sound patterns within the group arising around a particular guide." (3)
- "The importance of the leader was well illustrated by the fact that the style of glossolalia adapted by the group bore a close resemblance to the way in which the leader spoke. . . . It is not uncommon for linguists to be able to tell which prominent [traveling] glossolalist has introduced a congregation to tongue-speaking" (19)
If there is a real “language of angels,” why does every group have their own version? Do angels speak many different dialects? Why are these angelic languages so profoundly linked to the human speakers primary language or distinct historic stream? Why can linguists trace the glossolalic “accents” of the speakers to human guides if the only guide is the Holy Spirit? If all glossolalists spoke in a unique language, that was unknown and unrelated to any earthly language, and that language was inexplicably uniform in accent, intonation, etc, in every part of the world, that might have been indicative of some sort of angelic language. However, does not the fact that in each case glossolalia is composed of mixed sounds taken from the speakers native language better suit a natural explanation?
2. Why did glossolalia exist before the birth of Christianity?
The story of glossolalia I learned as a Pentecostal begins at Pentecost, where the Apostles reportedly first began speaking in glossolalia. In fact, it should be obvious that the Pentecostal movement is named after the day of Pentecost (which was originally the Jewish holiday Shavuoth). The only issue is that this particular day does not even have one example of glossolalia, and if we don't impose our ideas into the Bible, we can observe that there is no specific mention of glossolalia anywhere in the Acts of the Apostles. Rather, all of the tongues/languages that were spoken were plainly understood (Acts 2:4-11), meaning this was xenoglossy in the form of public preaching, not glossolalia as prayer. Yet, the act of glossolalia, speaking in unknown (or ecstatic) speech has many pre-Christian roots. In a lengthy journal article for the American Scientific Affiliation (an association of Christian scientists), Dr. Pattison summarizes the publications of numerous historians on this topic by saying- “Glossolalia had been practiced for many years along with other ecstatic phenomena by the prophets of the ancient religions of the Near East. Prophets and mystics of Assyria, Egypt, and Greece reportedly spoke in foreign tongues during states of ecstasy and uttered unintelligible phrases said to be revelations from the gods...The practice was known in ancient India and China, and ethnographies describe glossolalia in almost every area of the world.(4)"
- "Interestingly, in both Christian 'and non-Western religions there is often an "interpreter" who volunteers from the audience to either translate the message into human language or verify that the strange tongue is actually some foreign language known to the interpreter." (4)
Now here is the hard question, why are there many examples of glossolalia before the Christian church? If glossolalia is strictly an angelic language, given by God at the birth of the church, why are there so many clearly documented cases of glossolalia in other religions, before Christianity? Does it not seem odd that God would give Christians a spiritual language that existed beforehand in pagan worship? However, if glossolalia is a natural phenomenon we would expect to see it throughout the ancient world, and indeed we do. Of course most charismatics, upon realizing they cannot dispute the historic data, simply say that these earlier forms of glossolalia were demonic counterfeits. Yet, if this is the case, they must answer two even harder questions, how can a counterfeit exist for thousands of years before the real thing appears, and why would God give Christianity a gift that was already incorporated in pagan practices?
3. Why did Jesus forbid prayer with babbling/long repetitions if he was going to give it as a special gift?
When I was much younger it always bothered me that the teachings of Jesus about prayer did not appear to be consistent with the teachings of the Pentecostal church. We tried to pray as as publicly as we could, loudly in church or any restaurant we entered, yet Jesus tells his followers not to pray "in the synagogues" where they can "be seen by men" (Mat 6:5) but privately and "in secret" (Mat 6:6). Early on I realized we were not simply taking Jesus literally but allegorizing his teachings on prayer, or making exceptions. What eventually began to bother me even more was the following verse and idea. Jesus is quoted saying:- "And when you are praying, do not use meaningless repetition (battalogeó/battalogēsēte) as the Gentiles do, for they suppose that they will be heard for their many words." (Mat 6:7)
- "There is general agreement that the idea of babbling or stammering is meant in Matthew 6:7. We may conclude that Jesus spoke against prayer which consisted of unintelligible speech or babbling, similar to the pagan prayers." (6)
4. Why do non Christian religions include glossolalia as part of their worship?
To make matters even worse or more confusing, not only are forms of glossolalia present before the advent of Christianity, but are even now practiced in the more ecstatic fringe elements of other religions. In a large scale survey of American Christianity, the Pew Forum found that not only did 24% of Orthodox and 18% of Catholic responders claim to have spoken in tongues, but also groups like Mormons and Jehovah's witnesses have 11% and 8% of their adherents engaged in the practice of glossolalia. (7) In fact, even the founder of Mormonism spoke in tongues and encouraged others in his new religion, see the following recollection by an eyewitness:- "Father Smith would call upon some illiterate brother to rise and speak in tongues in the name of Jesus Christ. The order was given... Arise upon your feet, speak or make some sound, continue to make sounds of some kind, and the Lord will make a tongue or language of it". (8)
- "Glossolalia is practiced among non-Christian religions: the Peyote cult among the North American Indians, the Haida Indians of the Pacific Northwest, Shamans in the Sudan, the Shango cult of the West Coast of Africa, the Shago cult in Trinidad, the Voodoo cult in Haiti, the Aborigines of South America and Australia, the Eskimos of the subarctic regions of North America and Asia, the Shamans in Greenland, the Dyaks of Borneo, the Zor cult of Ethiopia, the Siberian shamans, the Chaco Indians of South America, the Curanderos of the Andes, the Kinka in the African Sudan, the Thonga shamans of Africa, and the Tibetan monks" (10)
5. If interpretation is the main purpose, why do we almost never see interpreted glossolalia?
In the Bible we do not have clear teaching about glossolalia. There are few narrative descriptions of xenoglossy in Acts, and the 14th chapter of 1st Corinthians that is devoted to "speaking in tongues" which could be either xenoglossy or glossolalia (biblical scholars disagree). There are a few other very brief mentions, one that was added later by scribes and isn't in the original biblical text, and others that merely list the gift of tongues but offer no qualifying information. In the most comprehensive, but yet challenging and sometimes unclear passage on tongues, the Apostle Paul says the following- "If anyone speaks in a tongue, it should be by two or at the most three, and each in turn, and one must interpret: but if there is no interpreter, he must keep silent in the church." (1 Cor 27:28)
- "For if the bugle produces an indistinct sound, who will prepare himself for battle? So also you, unless you utter by the tongue speech that is clear, how will it be known what is spoken? For you will be speaking into the air." (1 Cor 14:8-11)
- "Therefore if the whole church assembles together and all speak in tongues, and ungifted men or unbelievers enter, will they not say that you are mad?" (1 Cor 14:23)
6. If modern tongues are the same as those in Acts, why is there no verifiable xenoglossy?
As previously mentioned, Pentecostals and Charismatics will most eagerly identify the writings in Acts 2 as the historic and theological roots of the modern charismatic movement. I have often heard expositions of Acts 2 that were directly linked to the modern practice of glossolalia. Something like "If the apostles spoke in tongues then, why ought we not today?!" These types of sermons are usually followed by prolonged communal glossolalic prayers. However, few, if any, of these preachers have ever mentioned the radical difference between the tongues of Acts 2 and those of the contemporary charismatic movement. There is not even one case of glossolalic prayer in the whole book of Acts! The very incident that Pentecostals point to as the foundation of their movement, Acts Chapter 2, is unmistakably a case of xenoglossy in the form of public speech. The gathering of "devout men from every nation under heaven" (Acts 2:5) around the first tongue speakers clearly stated "we hear them in our own tongues" (Acts 2:11). It is very obvious that the miraculous tongues that were spoken in Acts 2 (and the rest of Acts) were real human languages that native listeners understood. (13)If that is the case, where are the millions of cases of documented and verifiable xenoglossy? Where are the explosions of speech that are clearly real foreign tongues in Pentecostal or charismatic churches? If modern “speaking in tongues” is exactly the same in Acts 2, why has there never been a case even closely resembling Acts 2? Where are the crowds of people that hear Pentecostals/charismatics pray and reply with “we hear them in our own tongues”? There is not even one clearly documented case of xenoglossy where the speaker was not exposed to the language reportedly spoken. There are certainly fables and hearsay, often coming from remote regions of the world captivated by superstition, via the worlds longest game of telephone, however, those cases that are empirically tested, are shown to be untrue. William Samarin, a linguist who published a classic and foundational book on glossolalia (14) mentions cases that were reported to be xenoglossy, but proven to be glossolalia in no known language when investigated by expert native speakers (1). He concludes that:
- "most reports [of xenoglossoly] are made by uncritical people.. [who] have never been witnesses of a case of xenoglossia but have been told about it... In short we are given hearsay evidence, and we will always have as much difficulty in finding a bona fide witness as one does who tries to find a person who saw a sea monster." (1)
- Why is the only "evidence" given for xenoglossia in the form of unverifiable stories which resemble other urban legends? Why is this "evidence" the exact same type of stories that are used to prove UFO's, ghosts, vampires, bigfoot, telepathy, witchcraft, reincarnation, and astrology? Even the Roswell story, that aliens from a crash landing were experimented on by the US government, is incomparably better attested by many more eyewitnesses than any case of xenoglossy. Why is there not even one example of a tongue speaker who can repeatedly utter phrases in foreign languages while being videotaped?
- "The investigations that have been carried on have never verified the claim of speaking in an actual foreign language unknown to the glossolalist." (18)
7. If glossolalia is a real language, why are different interpretations given for the same phrase?
As I have shown previously, researchers have observed the act of "interpretation" of glossolalia in many cultures and in "both Christian 'and non-Western religions" (4). This is often given as proof or evidence of the validity of a supernatural manifestation. However, few charismatics realize that numerous studies have been done on this phenomenon of "interpretation" and they have revealed irreparable discrepancies. One persons glossolalic speech is recorded, and this audio recording is given to numerous Pentecostals who claim to have the power or gift of interpretation. Then each of these interpreters proceeds to give a different interpretation. (1, 4, 21, 22, 23)- “One individual's ecstatic speech was tape recorded and played back separately to many individuals who believed that they had the gift of interpreting tongues. Their interpretations were quite inconsistent. Those particular interpreters were unable to extract significant meaning out of the glossolalia.” The differences were as wide as one being "a prayer for the health of someone's children," while another interpreted the speech as "praising God for a recent and successful church, fund-raising effort." (22)
- “Interpretations do in fact take place, but they are usually pious exhortations in the language of the group where the glossic utterances are made. They are often strikingly longer or shorter than the glossic utterance.” (1)
- “I have heard the same glossolalic phrases repeated by the same glossolalist in different services, but each time the identical glossolalic utterances are given a different translation." (4)
- "the interpreters gave different meanings to identical words in the same set of words. When confronted with this inconsistency, the interpreters simply said, 'God gave different interpretations.'" (14, 23)
8. Why can people be trained to speak in tongues, apart from supernatural intervention?
Numerous studies and publications have shown that glossolalia is a learned human behavior that can be fully taught to others without supernatural intervention (24, 25, 26, 27) Take the following study, for example:- 18–44 yr old undergraduates listened to a 60-sec sample of glossolalia... and then attempted to produce glossolalia... Afterward, half of the [subjects] received 2 training sessions that included audio- and videotaped samples of glossolalia interspersed with opportunities to practice glossolalia. Also, live modeling of glossolalia, direct instruction, and encouragement were provided by an experimenter. Both the trained [subjects] and untreated controls attempted to produce glossolalia on a 30-sec post test trial. About 20% of [subjects] exhibited fluent glossolalia on the baseline trial, and training significantly enhanced fluency. 70% of trained [subjects] spoke fluent glossolalia on the post test. Findings are more consistent with social learning than with altered state conceptions of glossolalia. (27)
In fact, some prominent atheists can still produce the full range of the glossolalic experience, see for example Dan Barkers (anti)testimony, in which he states that as a Pentecostal pastor he frequently spoke in tongues, and now as an atheist, still does it from time to time (28) Also see the testimony Marjoe Goertner, a famous charismatic healing evangelist, who later revealed that he was an atheist, even during his later healing crusades. He stated:
- "Tongues is something you learn. It is a releasing that you teach yourself. You are told by your peers, the church, and the Bible – if you accept it literally – that the Holy Ghost speaks in another tongue; you become convinced that it is the ultimate expression of the spirit flowing through you. The first time maybe you'll just go dut-dut-dut-dut, and that's about all that will get out. Then you'll hear other people and next night you may go dut-dut-dut-UM-dut-DEET-dut-dut, and it gets a little better. The next thing you know, it's ela-hando-satelay-eek-condele-mosandrey-aseya ... and it's a new language you've got down." (29)
9. If glossolalia is an essential part of Christian prayer, why didn’t Jesus mention it at all?
Christian Scriptures and theology declare that the hidden and mysterious nature of God and his desires for humanity are best revealed through the incarnation of Jesus Christ, who is God's son and revelation of Himself (Heb 1:1-2). Yet, when it comes to the speaking of glossolalia, Jesus is absolutely and completely silent. He does not, even on one occasion mention speaking in unknown tongues (glossolalia). Even as Jesus devotes time to clear teachings about prayer (Mat 6:5-13; Luke 11:1-4), and mentions the future indwelling of the Holy Spirit with power (John 14:16,26; Luke 24:49), he is completely silent on the topic of glossolalia. And not only silent, but as we have mentioned, the teachings of Jesus on prayer, completely contradict the manifestations of glossolalia (Mat 6:5-13).There is indeed one place where, reportedly, Jesus speaks of glossolalia, and that would be Mark 16:17-18, where Jesus is quoted saying “they will speak new tongues.” I have heard countless sermons that have used this passage as “direct, clear, evidence of Jesus teaching glossolalia!” This verse is often touted as a silver bullet by Pentecostals and charismatics, however, it is quite the opposite.
A cursory look at any contemporary Bible translation will find the whole section of Mark 16:9-20 in brackets with footnotes, if not altogether missing. Textual criticism and historic research has shown that this part of Mark is almost certainly an addition by scribes who copied the Bible, and it was not in the original text of Mark. Bible editions (ESV, NASB, NIV, HCSB, NRSV, NLT, and others), including those translated by committees of hundreds conservative evangelicals have a disclaimer before the ending of Mark, which says something like this: “Some of the earliest manuscripts do not include 16:9–20.” Here are the actual notes from a few Bibles, these are found as footnotes in the Gospel of Mark.
- Some manuscripts end the book with 16:8; others include verses 9–20 immediately after verse 8. At least one manuscript inserts additional material after verse 14; some manuscripts include after verse 8 the following [text of the "short ending of Mark"] (ESV)
- "The most reliable early manuscripts of the Gospel of Mark end at verse 8. Other manuscripts include various endings to the Gospel. A few include both the “shorter ending” and the “longer ending.” (NLT)
- "This section is a later addition; the original ending of Mark appears to have been lost. The best and oldest manuscripts of Mark end with ch. 16:8. Two endings were added very early." (Westminster Study Bible)
This brings us back to the original question, why was Jesus silent on glossolalia if it is one of the most important functions (and indeed evidence) of the Holy Spirit? Why did Jesus command a specific type of prayer, if he was planning to replace it with a glossolalia, a radical departure of his command, in two years? Why would he keep this all secret? Surely these are vital questions? It’s true that Jesus does not mention everything there is to know, yet, why would he neglect one of the most vital things? If Jesus is our primary teacher, and Christianity is all about Jesus, why is Jesus completely silent on the issue Pentecostals place at the core of the Christian experience? Even Paul, theologically speaking on Christ’s authority, only mentions tongues in the 1st letter to the Corinthians, in an unclear passage that is primarily a list of prohibitions of glossolalia or xenoglossy gone awry. None of the letters to the other churches contain even one brief mention of “speaking in tongues;” how can this be, if glossolalia is one of the most pivotal doctrines of the Bible? If you simply wanted to obey the words of Jesus, you could become a Christian, but could you ever become a glossolalist? Hardly. If a few chapters from 1st Corinthians were lost, you could still be a Christian but could you be a glossolalist? Why is this the case, if glossolalia is such a core doctrine of the Bible?
10. Why is Christian glossolalia almost unheard of before 1901 Topeka Kansas?
The historical case of glossolalia within the Christian world is one of the most intriguing ideas to tantalize the ears of man. Within the many writings of the early church there are only two first-hand references to "tongues." These are found in the writings of Irenaeus and Tertullian, while the other patriarchs are nearly silent. (35) There are a couple of second-hand mentions of gifts of the Holy Spirit by writers like Hilary of Poitiers and Novatian. (36, 37) There is no clarification given whether these tongues are glossolali or xenoglossy. There was, however, a ecstatic cult led by Montanus who engaged in glossolalia (it should be noted that Tertullian, mentioned previously, was at one point a follower of Montanus). The early church historian Eusebius, writing probably around 339 CE, states the following about Montanus:- "He became possessed of a spirit, and suddenly began to rave in a kind of ecstatic trance, and to babble in a jargon, prophesying in a manner contrary to the custom of the Church which had been handed down by tradition from the earliest times." (38)
In the middle ages there are a few brief and obscure references to something that could possibly be glossolalia, most notably in the small sect of Moravians, who were accused of speaking in “disconnected Jargon” which some Pentecostal historians, seeking to trace their roots, claim as their own. However, other historians, evaluating these claims have noted that:
- "There is little evidence of any form of glossolalia during the Middle Ages in either East or West." (42)
- "All the medieval references are so problematic that it is probably best not to try to evaluate them either pro or con.” (43)
- "The next time any significant tongues-speaking movement arose within Christianity was in the late seventeenth century. A group of militant Protestants in the Cevennes region of southern France began to prophesy, experience visions, and speak in tongues. The group, sometimes called the Cevennol prophets, are remembered for their political and military activities, not their spiritual legacy. Most of their prophecies went unfulfilled. They were rabidly anti-Catholic, and advocated the use of armed force against the Catholic church. Many of them were consequently persecuted and killed by Rome."(46)
As far as more recent history, we can readily ascertain which historic Christian leaders spoke in tongues. The answer is close to none.
- This list of non-speakers includes all of the most important leaders within historic reformation movements (Calvinism and Arminanism), including John Huss, Martin Luther, Ulrich Zwingli, John Calvin, Jacobus Arminius, Hugo Grotius, Simon Episcopius, George Whitefield, Jonathan Edwards, John Bunyan, John Wesley, William Carey, and Charles Spurgeon. There were reports of unusual occurrences, though not glossolalia, in the frenzied revivalism of Charles Finney, as well as in the ministries of D.L. Moody, R.A. Torrey, and Billy Sunday, however, there is evidence contra based on intimate knowledge of these men and their writings. (49) Even without this attestation, its highly unlikely that most Holiness movement Christians in the early 20th century would be so shocked by glossolalia if indeed the leaders who started their movement were speaking in tongues for a long time. The facts run quite to the contrary, even R.A Torrey, stated about Pentecostalism that it is "emphatically not of God, and founded by a Sodomite." (50)
- "Throughout the latter half of the 19th century in the United States, Protestants from various backgrounds began to ask themselves why their churches did not seem to exhibit the same vibrant, faith-filled life as those in the New Testament [for they did not speak in tongues]. Many of these believers joined evangelical or Holiness churches, engaged in ardent prayer and personal sacrifice, and earnestly sought God. It was in this context that people began experiencing biblical spiritual gifts. One of the focal points of the emerging [but not previously existing] Pentecostal movement was known as the Azusa Street revival (1906-09). After students at his Bethel Bible School in Topeka, Kansas, began speaking in tongues at a prayer meeting on January 1, 1901, Parham, through his Apostolic Faith Movement, had some success in promoting the restoration of the gift of tongues." (51)
- "One lasting and influential legacy of Azusa Street is the modern Pentecostal movement and its offspring, the charismatic movement. In many ways, the Azusa Street Mission was the prototype for modern Pentecostalism. For centuries, Western churches, both Roman Catholic and Protestant, had adopted the view that the gifts of the Spirit had ceased at the end of the Apostolic Age. Known as the cessation theory, this view became especially dominant among Fundamentalists and some Holiness groups that rejected Pentecostalism. Pentecostals were the first Christians since the Early Church to associate speaking in tongues with the baptism in the Holy Spirit. Before 1901, thousands of people in Holiness and Keswick groups had claimed a baptism in the Holy Spirit with various evidences [but not tongues] to validate their experience. (52)
- "There have been many instances where [seeking for] the gift of tongues led the subjects and the audiences in to the wildest excesses and were accompanied with voices and actions more closely resembling wild animals than rational beings, impressing the unprejudiced observers that it was the work of the devil."
- The founding leader of Pentecostalism, Charles Parham, himself described, and is reported by other Pentecostals to have seen wild manifestations at Pentecostal revivals, including "barking like a dog, braying like a donkey, and crowing like a rooster, and contortions and fits." (53, 54)
Theologically, are we really to believe that virtually all Christians before the origin of Pentecostalism did not have the Holy Spirit? The great leaders of the reformation and three hundred years after were all without the Holy Spirit as well? In fact, why does the first real case of glossolalia appear after a group of students were first convinced of its existence and set out to prove it right? In the Bible no one was aware of the existence of “tongues” at all, but rather, tongues “came suddenly” and unexpectedly to new believers, who did not have any doctrine to prove (Acts 2:2-4; 10:44-46). Why does modern history show the exact opposite? In general, why would God hide this gift for more almost two thousand years and then reveal through students who later admitted they were partly wrong? (55) Why would these tongues at first mistaken as real languages given for a “for a brief and intense spurt of [missionary] activity they thought would usher Christ’s return”? (56) Why were most historical Christians ungifted? Why is glossolalia missing from the normative practice of historic Christianity?
Conclusion
There are a great many whys, but few compelling answers. Maybe glossolalia is a real spiritual language given by God, yet the evidence from Scripture, history, science, logic, and reason is hardly in favor of this conclusion. It seems more consistent that glossolalia is a very real and (to some) spiritually meaningful phenomenon of emotional release with non linguistic 'free vocalizations.'NOTES
- Samarin, William J. "The Linguisticality of Glossolalia." Philosophy-Religion-Info. philosophy-religion.info/handouts/pdfs/Samarin-Pages_48-75.pdf (accessed September 28, 2013).
- General Presbytery of AoG. "Baptism in the Holy Spirit ." Assembly Of God Official Site. http://ag.org/top/Beliefs/Position_Papers/pp_downloads/PP_Baptism_In_the_Holy_Spirit.pdf (accessed September 26, 2013).
- Goodman, Felicitas D. Speaking in tongues; a cross-cultural study of glossolalia. Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1972. p.123
- Pattison, E. "BEHAVIORAL SCIENCE RESEARCH ON THE NATURE OF GLOSSOLALIA.." Science in Christian Perspective. http://www.asa3.org/ASA/PSCF/1968/JASA9-68Pattison.html (accessed September 27, 2013).
- May, L. Carlyle. "A Survey of Glossolalia and Related Phenomena in Non-Christian Religions." American Anthropologist, New Series, Vol. 58, No. 1 (Feb., 1956), pp. 75-96. American Anthopologic Association. http://www.deepsky.com/~merovech/voynich/voynich_manchu_reference_materials/PDFs/665726.pdf (accessed September 27, 2013.
- Edgar, Thomas R.. Satisfied by the promise of the Spirit: affirming the fullness of God's provision for spiritual living. Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel Publications, 1996. pp 178
- Pew Forum on Religion & Public Life. "Chapter 1: Religious Beliefs and Practices." U.S. Religious Landscape Survey. religions.pewforum.org/pdf/report2religious-landscape-study-chapter-1.pdf (accessed September 26, 2013).
- George B. Cutten, Speaking with Tongues Historically and Psychologically Considered (New Haven: Yale University Press, 1927): pp 71.
- "Speaking in tongues ." The Association of Religion Data Archives - U.S. and World Religion Statistics and Data . http://www.thearda.com/quickstats/qs_157_p.asp (accessed September 27, 2013).
- Jennings, G. J.: An Ethnological Study of Glossolalia, J. Am. Sci. Affil. (1968)
- "Symptoms of kundalini awakening." Biology of Kundalini - A Science and Protocol of Spiritual Alchemy. http://biologyofkundalini.com/article.php?story=SymptomsList (accessed September 27, 2013).
- T Bunn, John. "Glossolalia in Historical Perspective." Hiebert Global Center. hiebertglobalcenter.org/blog/wp-content/uploads/2013/03/Reading-5-Bunn-Glossolalia-in-Historical-Perspective.pdf (accessed September 27, 2013).
- One may posit that the miraculous tongues were actually glossolalia, and the real miracle was the fact that the listeners each understood the glossolalic speech in their own language; in essense a miracle of interpretation. However, such a proposed intepretation inadequately deals with the fact that the emphasis of Acts 2 is indeed on miraculous tongues, not on interpretation. This type of interpretation is not serious because it can be used to reinterpret any other biblical miracle: did Jesus really walk on water, or was it a miracle of divine seeing. Perhaps the disciples only saw him walking because the real miracle was their "seeing" something that wasnt there.
- Samarin, William J. (1972). Tongues of Men and Angels: The Religious Language of Pentecostalism. New York: Macmillan. p. 186
- Stevenson, Ian. Cases of the reincarnation type, Charlottesville: University Press of Virginia, 1975
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